How is the gambler’s fallacy not a logical paradox? A flipped coin coming up heads 25 times in a row has odds in the millions, but if you flip heads 24 times in a row, the 25th flip still has odds of exactly 0.5 heads. Isn’t there something logically weird about that?

Question

I know it’s true, it’s just something that seems hard to wrap my head around. How is this not a logical paradox?

In: Mathematics

Answer 1

The odds of the 25th coin flip are just 0.5 if u don’t look at the 24 flips before that and if u dont care about the 24 before, there is no difference between throwing one and the 25th.