Given electrons and protons are what we consider fundamental particles and both have a charge of -1 or 1 does it not just make sense we can only have charges in integer multiples of that?
I understand quarks have a 1/3 charge but for the purpose of this discussion I think we can ignore that. We can also ignore magnetic monopoles really that was just a lead in to my question.
(copied from my response to mcgato)
In: Physics
Latest Answers