If the word “man” already refers to both male and female humans, why do many authors use “man or woman”?

Question

If the word “man” already refers to both male and female humans, why do many authors use “man or woman”?

In: Culture

Answer 1

It doesn’t unless it’s a compound word or obviously globally inclusive. “That woman’s poetry speaks for all mankind”. “The nature of man is corrupt”. Those are not ambiguous. “That man used to be a man”, doesn’t make any sense.