: if there is infinite numbers between 1 and 2 but none are 3 then between 1 and 3 there are also infinite but less numbers that arnt possible , how can it be

Question

In addition to u/YeetAndMeme ‘s post

In: Other

Answer 1

Infinite does not mean all inclusive. It means impossible to measure. So even though 3 does not fall in between 1 and 2 there are still so many numbers that we cannot physically measure it