(linguistics) how do the pronunciations for letters like ‘c’ or ‘g’ that can make multiple phonemes in English, when they are from the same language or even common root, diverge?

Question

I get that different languages have different sounds e.g. J in loan words from a nordic/germanic language is pronounced like our vowel Y with a hard attack, whereas J and X in a romance language are more like our Scottish or Germanic guttural CH – but in those languages it is ALWAYS the same way or follows specific logic. I’m wondering how, for example, the Greek root gyn/gam for female/wife/mother, came to be pronounced with the hard, forward j/G in misogynist, androgyny, and vagina, but the soft middle-top tongue like a voiced k G in gynecologist, polygamous, gamete, and gynecomastia. Is there a reason it’s pronounced in those two different ways, but never the French way which is so similar to the former but more open than closed?

In: Other

Answer 1

I’m a bit puzzled as to your pronunciation here. I pronounce gynecologist and gynecomastia with the same type of G as vagina and misogynist?