Let’s say there were 10,000 people in the study. If 100 people in the control got cancer, does that mean there were 98 more people that got cancer in the experimental group?
If anyone is interested in context, the study I’m referencing is linked [here.](https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC4602739/#!po=1.28205)
I want to make sure I’m interpreting these results correctly because this seems very high, thank you!
In: Biology
Holy crap that was dense. I don’t think I’ve ever read a medical study before.
So, what I got out of that is that there are multiple types of benzodiazepines. Some of them have shown increased association with unique, specific cancers from a Taiwanese sample, according to this study.
Then, there’s a market of “benzos” being prescribed, which each leverage different benzodiazepines permutations. Those are created by competing pharmaceutical companies and advertised on TV, such as Xanax and other benzodiazepines.
I have a few questions:
1. Do pharmacists and/or pharmacologists participate in monitoring which are not deemed safe anymore? Whose job is it to tell us what to stay away from?
2. Do studies like these (perhaps with a more definitive case showing harm) spawn off those late-night class action lawsuit, you-may-be-entitled-to-money commercials?
3. Why isn’t there a better estimation of long term affects before these pharmaceuticals reach production?
Generally no. Say the incidence of brain cancer in the control group is 0.1%. A 98% increase means that the likelihood of brain cancer in the experimental group increased by 98% which would make it 0.198%
So if you had 10000 people in the control group and 10000 people in the experimental group, you would expect 10 people to develop brain cancer in the control group and 19.8 people to get brain cancer in the experimental group.
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