Let’s say that Queen Elizabeth II of England were to marry King Juan Carlos I of Spain (hypothetical). What would happen to their realms if these two sovereigns were to marry. What about their titles? Would their kids be in line to the Spanish throne, British throne, or both?
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that would all have to be worked out, most likely in treaty of some sort.
the default answer would be the two houses two be joined, and the child of the monarchs of United Kingdom and Spain would, assuming theirs no older claimants, be the new King (or Queen) of both the United Kingdom and Spain. this would be a personal union, “two crowns on one head”, so to speak.
if a prior claimant exists (ie prince Charles), then they would inherit the throne they are heir to, but the other throne would go to the child (ie, Charles would be king of england, but his younger brother/sister would be king/queen of Spain). If Charles died with no heirs of his own, then the throne of England would pass to next child of the late queen, and we have the personal union again. If charles had kids of his own (ie William and Harry), those would get the kingdom of england before our hypothetical monarch of Spain.
unless the rules of Spainish succession are different, it would be the same. that said, the spanish set their own rules for who becomes the next king. If they have something like male only inheritance, and the hypothetical child was a girl, it might skip them to the next claimant, or pass directly to the hypothetical persons own son, or to thier husband who rules as prince consort, etc. etc.
it can get messy. wars have been fought over this stuff.
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