whether a data sample size can ever be large enough to compensate for a lack of diversity within the sample?

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I’m doing some research for an unrelated piece and came across this idea, but because I am not really proficient in stats, I don’t know how to refute it. But I feel I could understand if explained to me logically.

I’d also be curious to know if there are analytic concerns with extremely large sample sizes.

In: Mathematics

4 Answers

Anonymous 0 Comments

The ‘magic number’ is ~1250 people for polling purposes. If you do a good enough job trying to control for your variables, 1250 data points will start to show strong trends. More is always better, but this is a good par.

Remember that number next time you hear about a clinical trial or any kind of study that requires sampling. Small trials typically are used to show safety and show minor correlations to follow in larger experiments.

For better and more in depth information, find a Political Science course on Polling/Statistical data.

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