whether a data sample size can ever be large enough to compensate for a lack of diversity within the sample?

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I’m doing some research for an unrelated piece and came across this idea, but because I am not really proficient in stats, I don’t know how to refute it. But I feel I could understand if explained to me logically.

I’d also be curious to know if there are analytic concerns with extremely large sample sizes.

In: Mathematics

4 Answers

Anonymous 0 Comments

So, your sample group is biased and you want to know if further sampling of said group will yield less biased results?

No. That will not yield more accurate results, merely further cement and refine the existing biased results.

Let’s split the population into 2 groups for an example. People who own or have access to cars, and those that don’t.

Will asking for input related to the necessity of public transportation of the group that own cars ever reflect the views of those that don’t, even if we ask every single one of them? No, it’s not likely that they will, they’re more likely to think it’s not necessary because they can drive, where as those that can’t are likely to think of it as an absolute necessity. Now, they may share the same views but we can’t be confident that they do and thus we must acknowledge that this data is biased. We won’t get an accurate representation without an accurate sampling.

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