Why are condoms only 98% effective?

Question

I just read that condoms (with perfect usage/no human error) are 98% effective and that 2% fail rate doesn’t have to do with faulty latex. How then? If the latex is blocking all the semen how could it fail unless there was some breakage or some coming out the top?

In: 10950

Answer 1

Damn i can’t remember the names

Basically it covers “failures in contraceptive” and “failures in the use of contraceptives” — there’s fancy names for these things that i can’t recall.

edit: oh, its perfect-use and typical-use.