I just read that condoms (with perfect usage/no human error) are 98% effective and that 2% fail rate doesn’t have to do with faulty latex. How then? If the latex is blocking all the semen how could it fail unless there was some breakage or some coming out the top?
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On top of other answers, corporate lawyers will NEVER allow anyone to say 100% when marketing a product. Declaring a 2% failure rate provides for significant protection from lawsuits.
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