I just read that condoms (with perfect usage/no human error) are 98% effective and that 2% fail rate doesn’t have to do with faulty latex. How then? If the latex is blocking all the semen how could it fail unless there was some breakage or some coming out the top?
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Also keep in mind that when they say with perfect usage what they mean is that the people who had them fail *reported* perfect usage. A reasonable chunk of those people probably did make an error in usage it’s just that either they didn’t know they made a mistake or they were embarrassed about making a mistake so they said they did use it perfectly, therefore it must be the condoms fault. There were no researchers watching people shag to make sure they were using the condoms correctly.
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