Why does something like the gambler’s fallacy hold true in an instance like the monte carlo roulette incident?


In case you’re wondering what the monte carlo incident is, it was a game of roulette that landed on black 26 times in a row… the odds of that happening is 1 in 66.6 million

The gamblers fallacy is a fallacy that people who gamble tend to think if something has a long streak it’s going to change.

If the odds of it being 26 blacks in a row is 1 in 66.6 million why would that be a fallacy? Obviously it could always be a 27th black but thats incredibly unlikely and statistically speaking red would be far more likely…

In: Other

7 Answers

Anonymous 0 Comments

Apparently you have to consider the 26 straight reds against an infinite number of spins. It looked weird but wasn’t necessarily a miracle.

You are viewing 1 out of 7 answers, click here to view all answers.