Why is the slippery slope argument not considered a valid argument?

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This has always bothered me, because I can think of instance where bad behaviors can definetly lead to worst behaviors. The classic, if you smoke pot you’ll use harder drugs, is clearly not true in itself. Weed doesn’t cause you to want to do harder drugs, but since weed is illegal in a lot of places, it could expose you to hard drugs and you could become a user. I understand that this is not always the case, but I’d like to better understand why this is considered a fallacy when it could be true sometimes.

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Anonymous 0 Comments

It is a fallacy when you do not actually show why X is sufficiently likely to lead to Y and Z to be concerned about them. That is, you’re not really arguing against X, but are distracting with a trivial argument against Y and Z.

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