Why is the slippery slope argument not considered a valid argument?

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This has always bothered me, because I can think of instance where bad behaviors can definetly lead to worst behaviors. The classic, if you smoke pot you’ll use harder drugs, is clearly not true in itself. Weed doesn’t cause you to want to do harder drugs, but since weed is illegal in a lot of places, it could expose you to hard drugs and you could become a user. I understand that this is not always the case, but I’d like to better understand why this is considered a fallacy when it could be true sometimes.

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Anonymous 0 Comments

Because they don’t always (or even most of the time) lead to the worse possible scenario. Often the Slippery slope is used to say only one (highly unlikely) possibility will result from the first action. Perhaps my favorite example was one that was used against same-sex marriage before it went legal. The argument went something like this: “If we let people of the same sex marry, that destroys the institution of marriage itself. If it happens, next people will want to marry immediate family members, and then people will be want to marry animals. We can’t let that happen so, same-sex marriage must remain illegal.”

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