and why does it have a beginning and an end and a middle if it’s infinite
In: 0
>why is there an infinite amount of numbers between 1 and 2
Because any number you can find in between 1 and 2, you can always find a new number in between that and either 1 or 2. So you can always find a new number.
>but none of them include 3?
Because 3 is greater than 2, therefore it isn’t between 1 and 2.
>and why does it have a beginning and an end and a middle if it’s infinite
Because of how “infinite” is being used here. It is not infinite in its size (with size meaning the numerical distance between 1 and 2, that is a *finite* distance of 1). In this context when we are talking about infinity we are talking about how many numbers are crammed into that finite space. In which case, there are an infinite amount of numbers because no matter how many numbers you have, there will always be more.
Latest Answers