Why isn’t our dominant hand’s bicep disproportionally larger than our non-dominant hand’s bicep? 1.49K viewsJune 6, 2024BiologyOther Question100.55K June 5, 2024 0 Comments Considering we use our dominant arm for lifting, most tasks, holding things, etc. In: Biology 20 Answers ActiveNewestOldest Anonymous Posted June 5, 2024 0 Comments Because you use the muscles in your forearm more than your biceps, check your forearms one should be noticeably more defined than the other You are viewing 1 out of 20 answers, click here to view all answers. Register or Login
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