Why isn’t the time value of money applied to currency?

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Why isn’t the time value of money applied to currency in terms of purchasing power? Let’s say I have a dollar from 1930. I should be able to exchange that dollar today anywhere based on its present value, right? Doesn’t make any sense to me but I’m slow

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Anonymous 0 Comments

Could you imagine how long the drive thru line would be if they had to make change for a 1934, 1986 and a 1967 dollar

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