Why isn’t the time value of money applied to currency?

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Why isn’t the time value of money applied to currency in terms of purchasing power? Let’s say I have a dollar from 1930. I should be able to exchange that dollar today anywhere based on its present value, right? Doesn’t make any sense to me but I’m slow

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Anonymous 0 Comments

The face value of the money is the face value.

You can sell old coins for more if someone agrees to pay it, but the actual value is written on the currency

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