Ok so I know most of the reasoning but I just need it explained a bit better because thinking about it is hurtng my brain.
So you have 2 chances of 20% rolls to hit your goal at least once, 2 D5 dice, win condition need one of them to land on 5 would be an example, the chances of either one hitting isn’t 40%, it’s actually more like 36%. I THINK this is because you are hitting 2 out of 2 in some realities so that’s wasted potential, therefore your odds of hitting at least one are lower than 40%… But I really don’t get that last bit at all.
In: Mathematics
Let’s say your 20% chance is rolling a 2 dice with 5 sides. You win if it either comes up a 5.
All the possible rolls are:
(1,1)(2,1)(3,1)(4,1)(5,1)
(1,2)(2,2)(3,2)(4,2)(5,2)
(1,3)(2,3)(3,3)(4,3)(5,3)
(1,4)(2,4)(3,4)(4,4)(5,4)
(1,5)(2,5)(3,5)(4,5)(5,5)
There are 9 results with at least one 5, a win, of the 25 outcomes.
9/25 = .36 so a 36% win chance
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