Ok so I know most of the reasoning but I just need it explained a bit better because thinking about it is hurtng my brain.
So you have 2 chances of 20% rolls to hit your goal at least once, 2 D5 dice, win condition need one of them to land on 5 would be an example, the chances of either one hitting isn’t 40%, it’s actually more like 36%. I THINK this is because you are hitting 2 out of 2 in some realities so that’s wasted potential, therefore your odds of hitting at least one are lower than 40%… But I really don’t get that last bit at all.
In: Mathematics
Hopefully one of the explanations given is sufficient; assuming so, I won’t add another. But I did want to add that my favorite (layman) book on the subject is *The Drunkard’s Walk* by Leonard Mlodinow. And if someone would like to add their fave, that’d be great too.
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